Comments on Galatians 2:15-16

I agree with your comments on Galatians 2:15-16, Timotheos. I would add only one observation. There is a reasonable question that we ought to raise concerning how 2:15-16 fit within the context. For the purpose of this brief discussion, here is my translation of 2:11-21.

But when Cephas came up to Antioch, I opposed him to his face, because he stood condemned. For prior to the entrance of some men from James he was accustomed to eating with the Gentiles, but when they came, he began to pull back and hold himself separate, fearing those of the circumcision. And the rest of the Jews joined him, so that even Barnabas was carried away with them into hypocrisy. But when I saw that they were not behaving consistently with the truth of the gospel, I said to Cephas in the presence of all, "If you being a Jew, live as the Gentiles and no longer live as the Jews, how is it that you compel the Gentiles to Judaize?

We, by nature Jews and not sinners of the Gentiles, knowing that a human of the deeds required by the Law is not justified except through Jesus Christ’s faithfulness, we also believed in Christ Jesus in order that we might be justified from Christ’s faithfulness and not from the deeds required by the law, because no flesh shall be justified from the deeds required by the law.

If while we seek to be justified in Christ we are found also to be sinners, then is Christ the servant of sin? No way! For if I build again what I destroyed, I prove myself to be a transgressor. For through the law I died to the law, in order that I might live to God. I have been crucified with Christ, and I no longer live, but Christ lives in me. And the life I now live in the flesh, I live by the faithfulness that belongs to the Son of God, who loved me and gave himself on my behalf. I do not nullify God’s grace. For if righteousness comes through the law, then Christ died gratuitously."

The question concerns where the closing quotation marks should be placed. Is verse 15 the only portion that should be regarded as Paul's direct response to Peter's wayward behavior? Or, should we view verses 16ff to be integral to his response to Peter? If it is the former, then Paul must be expounding the core of his reasoning that incited the question he poses in verse 15, even if he did not speak these words or words similar to them to Peter at the time. On the other hand, is it not likely that verses 16-21 represent an accurate accounting of the fullness of what Paul had said to Peter on the occasion? The fact that the verses sustain Paul's manner of speech begun in verse 15 (e.g., "we Jews" and "Gentile sinners") suggests that verses 16-21 should be regarded as the continuation of what Paul spoke publicly to Peter before the congregation at Antioch.

Use of the expression, "Gentile sinners," underscores the likelihood of my suggestion. It would have been a fitting stinging expression for Paul to use in his public rebuke of Peter in the presence of Jews and Gentiles alike in Antioch. Paul's use of the expression lays bare the implicit posture that Peter exhibited toward the Gentiles who were present as he withdrew from them to eat with Jews alone."

Also, it seems to me that we need to have a deep sense of the power of intimidation that was at work so as to seduce Peter away from his heavenly-vision-transformed-posture toward Gentiles who believe in Jesus Christ (see Acts 10).

Does it make a difference whether we read verses 16-21 as the continuation of Paul's public speech to Peter in the church at Antioch? I think it does. I think that it enhances our understanding of the text. It seems to me that it sharpens the point that Paul is making. The issue at stake is not works righteousness; the issue is the end of the Mosaic Law's jurisdiction as covenant that defines God's people, the justified people, the seed of Abraham. Who are the justified people? Who are the people who are properly identified as Abraham's seed? The faithfulness of Jesus Christ is the all-essential feature that at once brings the Law of Moses to its terminus and inaugurates the new identifying feature of Abraham's seed because the faithfulness of Jesus Christ is the warrant, the ground, the basis upon which the justified people stand acquitted and declared righteous before God. It is not the Law Covenant (from the deeds required by the Law) that anyone stands justified before God. Rather, it is from the faithfulness of Jesus Christ that we find ourselves justified before God. Must we do anything to be justified? Yes. We must believe in Christ Jesus in order that we might be justified from Christ's faithfulness.

Ponder for a moment a segment of verse 16.

We, by nature Jews and not sinners of the Gentiles, know that a human of the deeds required by the Law is not justified except through Jesus Christ’s faithfulness. We also believed in Christ Jesus in order that we might be justified from Christ’s faithfulness and not from the deeds required by the law, because no flesh shall be justified from the deeds required by the law.

In particular, let's consider the force of Paul's words "we know that ἄνθρωπος ἐξ ἔργων νόμου is not justifed ἐὰν μὴ through the faithfulness of Christ Jesus." Concerning ἄνθρωπος ἐξ ἔργων νόμου, most translations separate ἄνθρωπος from its genitive modifier ἐξ ἔργων νόμου and read something like this: "We know that a man is not justified from the deeds required by the law." As such, the genitive, ἐξ ἔργων νόμου, is taken to modify the negated verb, "not justified." It seems to me that ἄνθρωπος should be viewed as modified by the genitive ἐξ ἔργων νόμου with the sense that the phrase--"a man of the works required by the Law"--is descriptive of any Jew, who by birth, is subject to the Law. Concerning ἐὰν μὴ, I would take it in its normal sense and force as "except" or "unless." Thus, the translation would be, "We know that a man of the deeds required by the Law is not justified except through the faithfulness of Jesus Christ." In other words, no Jew is justified before God in any way other than the same way that the Gentiles are justified.

Paul's argument has a force similar to the argument that Peter makes before the Council in Jerusalem when he contends:

Now therefore why are you putting God to the test by placing on the neck of the disciples a yoke that neither our ancestors nor we have been able to bear? On the contrary, we believe that we will be saved through the grace of the Lord Jesus, just as they will” (Acts 15:10-11).

The point of reference, in both Paul's and Peter's arguments, shifts to the Gentiles. As Peter makes his argument, notice how he shifts the point of reference to the Gentiles when he says, "On the contrary, we believe that we will be saved through the grace of the Lord Jesus, just as they [the Gentiles] will." As Paul makes his argument, observe how he shifts the point of reference to the Gentiles when he says, "We [Jews] . . . knowing that a man of the deeds required by the Law is not justified except through the faithfulness of Jesus Christ, we also believed in Christ Jesus in order that we might be justified from Christ’s faithfulness and not from the deeds required by the law, because no flesh shall be justified from the deeds required by the law." The Law of Moses offers absolutely nothing to a man's right standing before God. Whether one is of the deeds required by the Law (i.e., a Jew whose whole life is circumscribed by the Law of Moses) or one is a sinner of the Gentiles, what counts with regard to justification before God is the faithfulness of Jesus Christ.

Update: Readers, please observe some modifications and additions to this last entry.

Galatians 2.15-16

It is a bit strange to begin our treatment of Galatians right in the middle of the letter. This is not to say that what proceeds is of no importance. Rather, this beginning point reflects more my recent research, and thus for expediency we are going to begin here. Also, we are going to begin here because it is in 2.16, where Paul makes a move similar to that in Romans 1.16-17, which is to state an enigmatic thesis statement and then unpack it in the verses which follow it. So below, I will offer my translation again, and focus on the verses.

Galatians 2.15-16

¹⁵ We are Jews by nature and not Gentile sinners, ¹⁶ yet we know that no one is justified on the basis of the deeds required by Torah but by the faithfulness of Jesus Christ. And we have come to believe in Christ Jesus, so that we may be justified on the basis of the faithfulness of Christ and not on the basis of the deeds required by Torah, because on the basis of the deeds required by Torah no one will be justified.

After Paul discusses his confrontation with Cephas, he states that he like Cephas is a Jew by nature and not a Gentile sinner. Yet (probably the better interpretation of the participle εἰδότες; eidotes 'to know') knowing that no one (not even the Jew) is justified by God on the basis of the deeds required by Torah. Rather, the basis of justification is the faithfulness of Jesus Christ. Right away in v. 16 there are some interpretations here that need to be spelled out. First, what does Paul mean by ἔργων νόμου, ergōn nomou 'works of law'? The NIV translates this phrase as 'observing the law'. This rendering highlights the active sense of ergōn translating the noun 'works' as 'doing'. This would fit the predominate understanding that in Galatians Paul is contrasting faith in Christ and doing the law (i.e., legalism) as a basis for one's justification by God. But there are many ways in which this Pauline phrase has been interpreted. Here are the more dominate interpretations:

• “Deeds preformed in obedience to the law” (objective genitive).

• Shorthand for legalism (qualitative genitive)

• “Works which the law performs” (subjective genitive)

• “Deeds the law prescribes” (genitive of definition)

My translation of ergōn nomou 'Deeds required by Torah' follows from the evidence that frequently ergōn is followed by the genitive of the one who assigns the work or the task (See Westerholm, Israel's Law and the Church's Faith). This relationship can be seen in John 6.28 and 8.41. This makes sense, it seems to me, because Paul sees Torah as a power, no just a list of rules (Gal 3.24). Thus, right away, we see that I am not seeing Paul as contrasting legalism and faith in Christ. Rather, Paul is contrasting two covenants. One covenant is represented by Paul as 'Deeds required by Torah' and the other covenant is 'Christ's faithfulness' (But this needs to be shown in the remainder of Galatians 2-3, which is what I will attempt to do).

Again, picking up, Paul stresses that one, whether Jew or Gentile, is justified only on the basis of Jesus' faithfulness. Instead of being justified by deeds demanded by Torah, the only way one is justified is by Jesus' faithfulness. Here we have another interpretive decision. Modern translations typically translate πίστεως Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ, pisteōs Iēsou Christou, as 'faith in Jesus Christ'. For reasons which I will go on to show (especially Galatians 3.29), I see Paul talking about Jesus' faithfulness as the basis of the believer's justification, and not the believer's faith as the basis of justification (This was also argued in our interpretation of Romans 3.21-16). Paul's phrase, "Jesus' faithfulness" I think specifically refers to Jesus' obedience unto death, even death on a cross. Or more specifically to Galatians, his becoming a curse for those who believe by dying hung on a tree (Gal 3.13).

Thus, Paul in an enigmatic way in v. 16 is stating that those who believe on Jesus (whether Jew or Gentile) are justified by God not by belonging to Torah (the Mosaic covenant), but by Jesus' faithfulness in becoming a curse for us by dying on a tree.

From here Paul is going to go on and argue this point, and I will attempt to follow along.

What do you think, Paulos? Am I following Paul? Any corrections, additions, affirmations?

Blessings to you!

Timotheos

A Brief Change of Direction

Wow! It has been too long since I posted on this blog. I have been busy with a project which relates to the study of Paul, and Paulos and I are going to use this as a change in direction. We will come back after this brief interlude to continue with Romans. But, because of the nature of the project, and because it is still fresh on my mind, Paulos and I are going to work our way through Paul's argument in Galatians 2.16-3.29. If you have read all of the posts on this blog, you are aware that Paulos and I are interpreting Paul's much contended phrase pistis Christou ('Faith of Christ') as Christ's Faithfulness. This interpretation is not only important in Romans 1.16-17 and more specifically Romans 3.21-26, but also for understanding Galatians 2.15-3.29.

For the last month and a half I have revisited Paul's argument in Gal 2-3, especially regarding the interpretation of pistis Christou as 'Christ's Faithfulness'. So, because Paulos has thought a great deal about this, we are going to take this opportunity and work through Gal 2-3, and then return to the complexities of Romans 7.

So, for this week's post I am going to offer my translation of Gal 2.15-3.29, so that you may all see where the discussion will be going. Blessings to you, as you read!

Galatians 2:15 - 3:29

¹⁵ We are Jews by nature and not Gentile sinners, ¹⁶ yet we know that no one is justified on the basis of the deeds required by Torah but by the faithfulness of Jesus Christ. And we have come to believe in Christ Jesus, so that we may be justified on the basis of the faithfulness of Christ and not on the basis of the deeds required by Torah, because on the basis of the deeds required by Torah no one will be justified. ¹⁷ But if while seeking to be justified in Christ we ourselves have also been found to be sinners, is Christ then one who encourages sin? Absolutely not! ¹⁸ For if I build up again those things I once destroyed, I demonstrate that I am one who breaks God's Torah. ¹⁹ For through Torah I died to the Torah so that I may live to God. ²⁰ I have been crucified with Christ, and it is no longer I who live, but Christ lives in me. So the life I now live in the body, I live by the faithfulness that belongs to the Son of God, who loved me and gave himself for me. ²¹ I do not set aside God's grace, because if righteousness was through the Torah, then Christ died for nothing!

^3:1 You foolish Galatians! Who has cast a spell on you? Before your eyes Jesus Christ was vividly portrayed as crucified! ² The only thing I want to learn from you is this: Did you receive the Spirit on the basis of the deeds required by Torah or on the basis of the message of faithfulness? ³ Are you so foolish? Although you began with the Spirit, are you now trying to finish by flesh? ⁴ Have you suffered so many things for nothing?– if indeed it was for nothing. ⁵ Does God then give you the Spirit and work miracles among you on the basis of the deeds required by Torah or on the basis of the message of faithfulness? ⁶ Just as Abraham believed God, and it was credited to him as righteousness, ⁷ so then, understand that those who are of the faithfulness are the sons of Abraham. ⁸ And the scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the Gentiles on the basis of faithfulness, proclaimed the gospel to Abraham ahead of time, saying, "All the nations will be blessed in you." ⁹ So then those who are of the faithfulness are blessed with faithful Abraham. ¹⁰ For all who are of the deeds required by Torah are under a curse, because it is written, "Cursed is everyone who does not keep on doing everything written in the book of the law." ¹¹ Now it is clear no one is justified before God by Torah, because the Righteous One will live on the basis of faithfulness. ¹² But Torah is not of faithfulness, but the one who does the works of Torah will live by them. ¹³ Christ redeemed us from the curse of Torah by becoming a curse for us (because it is written, "Cursed is everyone who hangs on a tree") ¹⁴ in order that in Christ Jesus the blessing of Abraham would come to the Gentiles, so that we could receive the promise of the Spirit through faithfulness. ¹⁵ Brothers, I offer an example from everyday life: When a covenant has been ratified, even though it is only a human contract, no one can set it aside or add anything to it. ¹⁶ Now the promises were spoken to Abraham and to his seed. Scripture does not say, "and to the seeds," referring to many, but "and to your seed," referring to one, who is Christ. ¹⁷ What I am saying is this: The law that came four hundred thirty years later does not cancel a covenant previously ratified by God, so as to invalidate the promise. ¹⁸ For if the inheritance is based on Torah, it is no longer based on the promise, but God graciously gave it to Abraham through the promise. ¹⁹ Why then was Torah given? It was added because of transgressions, until the arrival of the seed to whom the promise had been made. It was administered through angels by an intermediary. ²⁰ Now an intermediary is not for one party alone, but God is one. ²¹ Is Torah therefore opposed to the promises of God? Absolutely not! For if a law had been given that was able to give life, then righteousness would certainly have come by Torah. ²² But the scripture imprisoned everything and everyone under sin so that the promise could be given, because of the faithfulness of Jesus Christ, to those who believe. ²³ Now before this faithfulness came we were held in custody under Torah, being incarcerated for the faithfulness that was about to be revealed. ²⁴ Thus Torah had become our guardian until Christ, so that we could be declared righteous on the basis of faithfulness. ²⁵ But now this faithfulness has come, we are no longer under a guardian. ²⁶ For you are all sons of God through the faithfulness in Christ Jesus. ²⁷ For all of you who were baptized into Christ have clothed yourselves with Christ. ²⁸ There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither slave nor free, there is neither male nor female– for all of you are one in Christ Jesus. ²⁹ And if you belong to Christ, then you are Abraham's seeds, heirs according to the promise.

Comments on Romans 6:15-18

¹⁵ What then? Shall we sin because we are not under the Law but under grace? No way! ¹⁶ Do you not understand that the one to whom you present yourselves as slaves to obedience, you are slaves of the one whom you obey, either of sin leading to death, or of obedience leading to righteousness? ¹⁷ But thanks be to God that although you were slaves of sin, from the heart you became obedient to the pattern of teaching unto which you were handed over, ¹⁸ and having been set free from sin, you were enslaved to righteousness.

Once again, Paul raises a question akin to the one he posed in Romans 3:8 (And why not say (as we are slandered and as some claim we say) ‘Let us do evil that good may come about?’ Their condemnation is just!) and similarly in Romans 6:1 (What shall we say, then? Shall we persist in sin, in order that grace might increase?). Each of these three questions bears similarities in that all touch upon God's plan or purpose concerning Israel, the Law of Moses, and human sinfulness. Nevertheless, despite the similarities among these three questions, each bears its own nuance. Paul's rhetorical question in vs. 15 implicitly cautions against wrong and flawed conclusions concerning what he has said in vs. 14--For sin shall not rule over you, for you are not under the Law but under grace. Lest anyone reason from this that freedom from the jurisdiction of the Law Covenant means that we are free to sin, Paul poses his rhetorical interrogative to beckon his readers to engage their minds fully in the argument that he is posing.

The notion that we can sin with impunity since we are not under the Law's jurisdiction (hypo nomon) but under the jurisdiction of grace (hypo charin) receives Paul's characteristically intense denunciation, May it never be! (mē genoito). Observe Paul's reply. He exploits the imagery of slavery to make his point. There is not one person who is free from slavery. Not one of us is a free agent, one who has no master. One is either a slave to sin or a slave to obedience, which is to be a slave of righteousness. Indeed, we who are in Christ Jesus have been set free from sin. Yet, we are still slaves. We have a new master. We are now enslaved to righteousness. Truly, Timotheos, it is as you have stated. This is true freedom.

Also observe the thorough integration of the two aspects that we observed in the previous segment, Romans 6:11-14. He integrates the indicative (What God has accomplished in Christ Jesus) with the imperative (What we are obliged to do).

Paul represents reality in Christ with indicative verbs in 6:4-10. Verse 11 transitions to exhortation, in verses 12 & 13 where imperative verbs dominate ("Let not sin reign. . . . Do not present . . . but present yourselves."). In verse 14, Paul returns to the indicative to say, "For sin shall not rule over you, for you are not under the Law but under grace." Paul is saying that sin's mastery or lordship (also sin's kingship) has been broken with Christ's death. Already, we dwell under a new master, the Lord Jesus Christ, as we await the consummation of Christ's mastery when sin will have no more dominion over us at all.

Paul integrates the indicative with the imperative by posing a question: Do you not understand that the one to whom you present yourselves as slaves to obedience, you are slaves of the one whom you obey, either of sin leading to death, or of obedience leading to righteousness? The kind of slavery Paul has in view does not leave us as hostages led about unwillingly or passively. Rather, the apostle makes it clear that our desires, our wills, our willing submission is quite active so that we are willing participants in our enslavement. Paul's question, then, recalls his admonitions in vv. 11-13.

Likewise, you also consider yourselves to be dead to sin but alive to God in Christ Jesus. Therefore, do not let sin have dominion in your mortal bodies unto the obedience of its cravings. Nor present your members to sin as tools for unrighteousness, but present yourselves to God as ones who are alive from the dead, and present your members to God as tools for righteousness.

What is Paul saying in vv. 15ff? There is no neutrality in the Christian life. The Christian life is one of enslavement to righteousness. Christians are enslaved to righteousness. Christians cannot be enslaved to sin. What about all those "Christians" that we know who seem, as well as we can observe, to be enslaved to sin? Let God be proved true and every man be proved a liar (Romans 3:4).

One further element is worthy of comment. Verses 17 & 18 state, But thanks be to God that although you were slaves of sin, from the heart you became obedient to the pattern of teaching unto which you were handed over, and having been set free from sin, you were enslaved to righteousness. We should take note of the verb Paul chose to use in the clause, you became obedient to the pattern of teaching unto which you were handed over.

Therefore God handed them over to the cravings of their hearts unto impurity, that their bodies might be dishonored among them. They exchanged the truth of God with a lie, they worshiped and served the creation instead of the Creator, who is blessed forever, amen!

Because of this, God handed them over to dishonorable passions, for even their women exchanged the natural sexual relations for that which is against nature. Likewise the men abandoned the natural sexual relationship with women and burned with lust for one another---men committed with men that which is disgraceful---receiving in themselves the due penalty for their error.

And just as they did not consider God as worthy to be known, God handed them over to a debased mind, that they might do things that are not fitting, being filled with all kinds of unrighteousness, wickedness, covetousness, malice.

The verb is paradidōmi, the same as in Romans 1:24, 26, & 28. Elsewhere, wherever Paul uses paradidōmi in Romans, he uses it with the sense handed over for punishment. This includes handing Jesus over to sacrificial death (see 4:25 & 8:32 also). Of particular contrast, however, is the use of the verb in our present context and the three uses of it in Romans 1. It is evident, then, that Paul's use of the verb in 6:17 is purposefully ironic. As God handed those over to their lusts and cravings to become enslaved to sin, so God has handed us over to become obedient to the pattern of teaching that is found in Christ. What a glorious enslavement! This is true freedom!

Finally, Timotheos, you asked, Does Paul view Torah and Grace as powers (cf., Flesh and Spirit in Gal 5) or salvation-historical periods (cf., Torah and Faith/fulness in Gal 2-3), or both? As I understand what Paul has been arguing throughout Romans, it seems quite reasonable to take Torah and Grace both as powers and as salvation-historical epochs. As we will see, I believe, Flesh and Spirit are also expressions that depict both.

Romans 6.15-18

[15] What then? Shall we sin, because we are not under Torah but under grace? Banish the thought! [16] Do you not know that to whom you present yourselves as slaves it is for obedience, you are slaves to whom you obey, either to sin unto death, or obedience unto righteousness? [17] But thanks to God that you were slaves of sin, but you obeyed from a heart unto the pattern of teaching to which you were entrusted, [18] and having been freed from sin, you were enslaved to righteousness.

Paul stated in v. 14 that sin will not master the Roman Christians, because they are not under Torah but under grace. This statement move Paul to spell out the implications of being under grace. Before he does this though he argues against a possible misconception. It could be reason by those who are no longer under Torah that this would lead to sinful behavior. But as Paul as already hinted at and will show more fully in chapter 7 Torah in and of itself is impotent to restrain sin. In fact, the arrival of Torah brought with it the multiplication of transgression. So to anyone who may conceive of life under grace as a reason to sin Paul says, 'Banish the thought!'. Also in v. 14 Paul moves from death and resurrection language to slavery language (For sin will not master you [14a]), and he fills this language out in vv. 15-18.

The crucial piece here is that emancipation from sin does not lead to freedom from everything and everyone. Rather freedom from slavery to sin brings the Christian into slavery to righteousness, which is ironically true freedom. Paul emphasizes this by showing there are only two ways to live. One can either be a slave of sin, which leads to death or one can be a slave to obedience which leads to righteousness. These are the only two options because on is a slave to what they obey (16b). Paul, by way of thanksgiving, reminds the Romans that though they were at one time slaves of sin, they are no longer that, for they have obeyed from the heart. This statement it seems to me is important for it reminds us that Paul has already talked about a doing of the Law that is not about circumcision but is from the heart (2.14-15). This type of hear obedience does not come from being under Torah but from being under Grace.

One question I have for you, Paulos, is does Paul view Torah and Grace as powers (cf., Flesh and Spirit in Gal 5) or salvation-historical periods (cf., Torah and Faith/fulness in Gal 2-3), or both?

Application Question: Paulos, it seems to me from how Paul has argued in this section and in Romans 6 in general, that Christians should expect to see a discernable obedience in their lives. Because of the already/not yet there will not be perfection until we see Jesus as he is (1 John). But because we are under Grace, and because we are enslaved to righteousness, and because we are dead to sin and alive to God, we should work hard to be obedient, and any other way of living is contrary to the teaching of this passage. What do you think?

Scot McKnight on N. T. Wright on Paul's Letter to the Romans

If interested, Scot McKnight has been registering blog entries from his readings of N. T. Wright's commentary on Romans in The New Interpreter's Bible Commentary. Begin to read the sequence of entries here.

Comments on Romans 6:11-14

¹¹ Likewise, you also consider yourselves to be dead to sin but alive to God in Christ Jesus. ¹² Therefore, do not let sin have dominion in your mortal bodies unto the obedience of its cravings. ¹³ Nor present your members to sin as tools for unrighteousness, but present yourselves to God as ones who are alive from the dead, and present your members to God as tools for righteousness. ¹⁴ For sin shall not rule over you, for you are not under the Law but under grace.

Paul's reasoning moves from what is true of Christ Jesus to what is true of all who are in Christ Jesus, not, however, as though he has not already drawn out significant inferences in 6:1-10. Now, however, likewise signals that the apostle expressly draws out the theologically analogous inferences. As Christ died and was raised to life, so also you, consider yourselves dead to sin but alive to God in Christ Jesus. In my translation, I actually have verse 11 as the closing sentence to the previous paragraph. I begin a new paragraph with verse 12. I notice that others observe the same break.

Pault resumes his imagery of dominion from 5:14, 17, and 21 in Romans 6:6 and 6:9. Yet, in these latter verses, Paul alters the imagery slightly as he merges two imageries. In 5:14, 17, and 21 the imagery employs the verb basileuō. In 6:6 and 6:9 the verbs are douleuein and kurieuei respectively. It seems quite evident that the imagery of dominion (basileuetō; reigning, kingship, lorship, (6:12) derives from use of the same imagery in 5:17 which in turn derives from imagery that first emerges in Genesis 1:28 (katakurieusate; rule over). Yes, the word in 6:12 and in 5:17 is not the same as in Genesis 1:28. Nevertheless, it is a synonym, as we see that Paul shifts to kurieusei in 6:14. In other words, the apostle merges two imageries, that of dominion (reigning; kingship) and that of slavery. Paul transitions from the kingdom imagery of ruler-subject, so prominent in 5:14, 17, 21 to the master-slave imagery that he introduces in 6:6 (douleuein and 6:9 (kurieuei). His shift to the slavery-manumission imagery expands, as we will see, in 6:15-23.

Paul represents reality in Christ with indicative verbs in 6:4-10. Verse 11 transitions to exhortation, in verses 12 & 13 where imperative verbs dominate ("Let not sin reign. . . . Do not present . . . but present yourselves."). In verse 14, Paul returns to the indicative to say, "For sin shall not rule over you, for you are not under the Law but under grace." Paul is saying that sin's mastery or lordship (also sin's kingship) has been broken with Christ's death. Already, we dwell under a new master, the Lord Jesus Christ, as we await the consummation of Christ's mastery when sin will have no more dominion over us at all.