Monday, May 16, 2005

Romans 3:1-4

Paulos,
Here is my next translation and commentary. I took a shorter section for this entry. Things are a bit busy right now. I look forward to your response! Grace to you, my friend.

Romans 3:1-4

1 What, therefore, is the advantage of the Jew? Or what is the point of circumcision? 2 Much in every respect! First indeed that they were entrusted with the oracles of God. 3 What then? If some were unfaithful, does their unfaithfulness nullify the faithfulness of God? 4 Banish the thought! God is true and every man is a liar, just as it is written, “That you might be justified in your words, and you will prevail when you judge” (Psalm 51:4).

Given that God is making Jews of Gentiles, while the Gentiles remain uncircumcised in the flesh (2:29), the question Paul poses is crucial. If God is doing this, then what is the advantage to being a Jew and what is the point of circumcision? These are legitimate questions that flow from what Paul has just argued above regarding Gentiles who do the Law. It is instructive that Paul does not write off the Jew or circumcision. Instead he upholds the significance of the circumcision. Why? Because, Israel was entrusted with the oracles of God. That is, God gave the oracles to Israel, so that they would do and speak them to the world (Wright here makes much of Israel made to be the ‘light of the world’ as the task that Israel failed to accomplish. This may be the case, but I think this may be limiting Paul’s statement here. But I suppose Paul has already hinted at this in 2:23-24. But even there the idea seems to be larger than being ‘light of the world’. But then again could it not be that in transgressing Israel failed its vocation? Then the focus is on the transgression, and seeing the larger significance of the transgression as not being light. What do you think, Paulos?). This seems to be the point of ‘entrusted’. The question is then raised, regarding God’s faithfulness. That is, if Israel was entrusted with the oracles of God, and Israel was not faithful to God, does Israel’s unfaithfulness nullify the faithfulness of God? The answer that Paul expects by the question (because of how he wrote it in Greek) is ‘No’. God’s faithfulness is not nullified by the unfaithfulness of Israel. To show this Paul quotes from Psalm 51, the psalm of David, which was prayed after Nathan, God’s prophet confronted David regarding his adultery with Bathsheba. God’s judgment of David’s sin is right and just. His words are found true even though David committed adultery, lied, and murdered. What is interesting here is that David calls for God to cleanse him and wash away the sins that are ever present before him. Is Paul here alluding with this quote to the end of chapter 3, where Jesus is put forth as an atoning sacrifice? It seems this is the case. Thus, the quote from Psalm 51 grounds Paul’s statement that unfaithfulness does not nullify God’s truth, and the larger context of Psalm 51 points to where Paul is going.

1 comment:

Daniel said...

It's interesting how this section in many ways foreshadows the discussion in ch. 9-11. It is important to observe that the questions or objections that come up in ch. 9 are given in an abreviatied form here in ch. 3.