Comments on Romans 5.18-21

¹⁸ Therefore, then, as the transgression of one man brought condemnation to all, so also by the one man’s act of righteousness came the righteousness of life for all humanity. ¹⁹ For just as through the disobedience of the one man the many were made sinners, so also through the obedience of the one man the many shall be made righteous.

²⁰ Now the Law came in with the purpose that transgression might increase; but where sin increased, grace increased all the more, ²¹ in order that as sin reigned in death, so also grace might reign through righteousness unto eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord.

I believe that your comments on the passage are all on target. I will add little to your commentary on the section.

I will draw brief attention to verse 19. It is noteworthy that the apostle does not use the verb dikaioō ("justify") antithetically juxtaposed with the verb katakrinō ("condemn"). His word choice in verse 18 guides his word choice for verse 19. In verse 18 he sets two nouns antithetically: katakrima ("condemnation") and dikaiōsis ("righteousness;" "justification"). So, in verse 19 the apostle contrasts hamartōloi katestathēsin ("they were made sinners") with dikaioi katastathēsontai ("they will be made righteous"). Is it plausible to understand Paul's contrast to be more than a legal antithesis? Is it reasonable to take his antithesis to be at the constitutional level of the individual? In other words, is not the apostle speaking of the transformation of the human character? It seems he is. He is speaking, it seems, of the Last Day when our Adam-corrupted nature will finally be purged of sin and we will be constituted righteous by Christ Jesus.

Timotheos, you wondered whether

Paul seems to be saying here that God testified to his righteousness not only through the structures and patterns in Torah, but also in his design for sin's reign. That is, as I look at this comparison between the reign of sin and the reign of grace, it seems to have the same force as the comparison between the First Adam and the Second Adam, in that just as God designed the Adam to point to Christ, he designed the reign of sin to point to the reign of grace, so that just as Christ was compared Adam, and superseded him, so grace is compared to sin, and supersedes it. It seems strange or queer to think of it this way, but I think this is what Paul is saying. Would you concur?

I do concur. It seems to me that he draws out a necessary theological association between the Adam and Messiah Jesus typological contrast with the the Law of Moses/reign of sin in death and grace/reign of righteousness in eternal life antithesis. Thus, I think that you are correct to say that God designed the reign of sin to anticipate the reign of grace. The Law's jurisdiction, a Reign of Sin in Death, foreshadowed the Reign of Grace unto Eternal Life. The apostle's comments in verses 20 & 21, then, anticipate what he will say next, in Romans 6:1-2, but also they recall what he has said in Romans 3:1-8.